Explain This to Me
Someone who flies more often than me (which is probably everybody) please explain this to me.
If I fly from Austin to X with a nearly three hour layover in Dallas, it could cost me $y. However, if I want to simply drive to Dallas and take the plane from there to X, they want to charge me $y + 100. How does that make any business sense for them to charge me more for using their service less?
Also, if I take the flight with the one stop, is there something against the rules about just going to Dallas and boarding the second flight without taking the first one?
The answer is simple, and you can read about the new policy here:
http://www.theonion.com/content/news/american_airlines_now_charging
The reverse happened to me. I live in Dallas. I was going on a trip with my gf at the time who lived in Nacogdoches. She would have to leave out of Tyler, and I would have to leave out of Dallas. But we wanted to ensure we’d be sitting next to each other on the plane.
To fly from Dallas to Chicago would cost more than to drive to Tyler, fly back to Dallas, and then to Chicago.
Apparently it’s an Convenience Charge.